Kshartle wrote:
moda0306 wrote:
I think where things get really foggy is how they translate into property rights... This is the main area where our moral dilemma presents itself, and disagreement ensues, and what the best way to deal with the moral dilemma becomes a valid argument.
Let me see if I can properly address where the bulk of our disagreemt arises.
There is a belief that since the Earth has limited resources, humans will compete for these resources and the gain of one might entail the loss to another. So any act of ownership over resources is a denial of those to another. That means we must figure out some criteria logical and enforce it so that some humans aren't left out in the cold so to speak while others have abundance. This is the "moral dilemma" of property rights right?
Ok I really paraphrased that. I could go into a lot more detail but I want to be sure I'm on the right track. I think I have a rock-solid explanation of why this isn't a problem or a dilemma of any kind but I want to be sure I understand where you're coming from first.
That's pretty close to it... MT had a good point that lends to this (and my quote reenforces it)... that people's legitimate "property" is the value they add to a piece of land or existing property, not the resource itself.
This implies that there is some "net worth" tied up in resources themselves, rather than any one person's additional value added to them. To deny certain people ANY right to these resources by claiming them as our own either by conquering them, or by "making them better," is to essentially steal value from all the other people that could have used it.
Most of the land claimed in the U.S. was not done in this context. The US government said, basically, "if you can do something productive with it, we'll allow you legal title to it, and maybe even shoot some Indians that 'trespass' on your property." This was an order by government without which many people would simply NOT have moved West, drilled for oil, etc, because the risk of claiming what was quasi-occupied property would have been too high without a government guarantee.
Further, I think it would help to define your term "ownership." I tried to give a few of the potential definitions of it, but would like to see yours (though I'm sure you've given it, somewhere... sorry for the repeat request). I still think you're moving from one definition to the other. I may understand the consequences of my actions, and am able to control my actions, so since I can control them one could say I "own" them from a functional perspective, and if there IS an established moral principal, I'm responsible if I violate it, but it doesn't, in and of itself, establish a moral principal.... or more specifically, to "own" something from a moral perspective is not just about control of it, but having a morally valid claim to it. I may "own" a stolen car from a functional standpoint, but I don't, morally. I may have been able to "own" another human being in 1850, but I didn't have any moral "ownership" of him.
See what I mean? You're taking a functional FACT (I agree that we have conscious control of our actions an understand consequences), and moving to a different definition of the same word and making it a moral argument. And it's not that I don't agree with it mostly. I think the fact that we can control what we do, and have a conscious understanding of the results of our actions is a HUGE piece of building a moral structure atop it. It's NECESSARY for morality, because the existence of a moral code involves 1) understanding consequences, and 2) being able to choose our actions.
So I'm simultaneously extremely close to agreeing with you, while saying that there is a wall between your attempt to link our conscious control of our actions, and morality in and of itself. One requires the other (morality requires conscious understanding and control of our actions), but the other doesn't naturally follow from the former (control of our actions doesn't necessarily, logically mean that someone else attempting to force us to do something is wrong).
Further, as I've said a bunch of times, any misinterpretation (to the detriment of others' potential sharing of claims) of the extension of any individual sovereignty (self-ownership) that I MIGHT have (I do believe we have it), is, in fact, an act of force, not enforcement. Building a fence around something that is not mine, and shooting trespassers is force, not enforcement (as you've said), and since we live in a world of varying opinions (none of which is provably right/wrong) on HOW our individual sovereignty extends outside our bodies, we MUST have force. Even if it's us thinking that we're "enforcing" when we're really just "forcing." So do we take the force we know/understand (government), and replace it with random, uncontrolled, individual expressions of "force" that many practitioners of will see as "enforcement" (and therefore are just mini-governments, essentially)?
Some would say yes. But I would argue that they're not advocating for no use of force, but just different use of force, that HOPEFULLY will look less like "force" and more like "individual enforcement."
"Men did not make the earth. It is the value of the improvements only, and not the earth itself, that is individual property. Every proprietor owes to the community a ground rent for the land which he holds."
- Thomas Paine