Thoughts on the nature of rights
Posted: Fri Oct 04, 2013 7:32 pm
The thread on property rights got me thinking about rights in general. What makes the most sense to me is that rights are shared social constructs that arise to codify the details of various naturally-understood concepts.
Property rights are a great example. I think we can all agree that we own our own bodies and aggression against our bodies can be morally resisted with violence. Pretty much all human societies have believed this to some extent. And from that, we have the right to own objects that we pick up and fashion--maybe even up to a house and some animals. And denizens of even the most primitive societies will object if you back a truck up and start loading up their food (thanks for the example, MT). So even if their systems of property rights may not be highly formalized with fences and deeds and law courts, clearly they understand the concept.
I assert is that "rights" are shared para-legal notions codifying these naturally understood concepts such as property, privacy, freedom of travel, expression, self-defense, etc. However--and I believe this is an important point--historically, the details of their codification has varied heavily from society to society. For example one society's definition of "property rights" might mean "any structures you build, any animals you hunt, any objects you create from unowned natural raw materials", while another society's definition might include all that, and additionally, "any unowned land you declare you own and can defend against trespassers".
Is one definition right and another wrong? I argue that they're both right within their own societies as long as they facilitate rather than hinder intra-societal harmony (the entire social goal of rights--solitary humans in nature for example have no need of rights). However, Historically tragedy has ensued when competing models of rights clashed. For example, in the Americas, European notions of property as encompassing enclosed and absentee land ownership clashed with the natives' notion that land could not be formally owned in that manner. Was one society right and another wrong? Neither was in my estimation; but one society beat the other due to their superior strength--a strength largely facilitated by its differing definition of property.
It turns out that there is a sort of competitive "market" in rights as well as different conceptions of rights fight amongst each other in human affairs with the aim of empowering and enriching their respective societies. A right that hinders people will be discarded; for example, the concept of property rights that does not encompass enclosures and absentee ownership proved to be of little help in resisting the incursions of people who believed alternative definitions. Does this mean that the winning conception of property rights in this fight was correct? No, only that it made its society stronger, and in the end, stronger societies always beat weaker societies.
Property rights are a great example. I think we can all agree that we own our own bodies and aggression against our bodies can be morally resisted with violence. Pretty much all human societies have believed this to some extent. And from that, we have the right to own objects that we pick up and fashion--maybe even up to a house and some animals. And denizens of even the most primitive societies will object if you back a truck up and start loading up their food (thanks for the example, MT). So even if their systems of property rights may not be highly formalized with fences and deeds and law courts, clearly they understand the concept.
I assert is that "rights" are shared para-legal notions codifying these naturally understood concepts such as property, privacy, freedom of travel, expression, self-defense, etc. However--and I believe this is an important point--historically, the details of their codification has varied heavily from society to society. For example one society's definition of "property rights" might mean "any structures you build, any animals you hunt, any objects you create from unowned natural raw materials", while another society's definition might include all that, and additionally, "any unowned land you declare you own and can defend against trespassers".
Is one definition right and another wrong? I argue that they're both right within their own societies as long as they facilitate rather than hinder intra-societal harmony (the entire social goal of rights--solitary humans in nature for example have no need of rights). However, Historically tragedy has ensued when competing models of rights clashed. For example, in the Americas, European notions of property as encompassing enclosed and absentee land ownership clashed with the natives' notion that land could not be formally owned in that manner. Was one society right and another wrong? Neither was in my estimation; but one society beat the other due to their superior strength--a strength largely facilitated by its differing definition of property.
It turns out that there is a sort of competitive "market" in rights as well as different conceptions of rights fight amongst each other in human affairs with the aim of empowering and enriching their respective societies. A right that hinders people will be discarded; for example, the concept of property rights that does not encompass enclosures and absentee ownership proved to be of little help in resisting the incursions of people who believed alternative definitions. Does this mean that the winning conception of property rights in this fight was correct? No, only that it made its society stronger, and in the end, stronger societies always beat weaker societies.