Rule 7
Posted: Sun Apr 15, 2012 6:11 am
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Permanent Portfolio Forum
https://www.gyroscopicinvesting.com/forum/
https://www.gyroscopicinvesting.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=2453
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1 mo 3 mo 6 mo YTD 1 yr 3 yr 5 yr SIR *
HXU -3.0 % 8.1 % 11.9 % 8.1 % -26.8 % 19.4 % -12.6 % -6.2 %
HXD 2.3 % -9.1 % -17.2 % -9.1 % 16.2 % -28.4 % -26.2 % -17.1 %
TSX -1.3 % 4.6 % 7.5 % 4.6 % -10.2 % 13.2 % 2.4 % 2.2 %
* performance since inception on January 8, 2007.
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Nominal Prime Diff Value Prime Diff Value
Gain Rate of $100,000 Rate of $100,000
(CA PP) Margin (+1.5%) Margin
1970 4.8 7.5 -2.7 $97,275.00 9.0 -4.2 $95,775.00
1971 10.5 6.0 4.5 $101,635.83 7.5 3.0 $98,631.96
1972 20.8 6.0 14.8 $116,634.50 7.5 13.3 $111,707.86
1973 21.8 9.5 12.3 $130,936.73 11.0 10.8 $123,730.35
1974 12.2 11.0 1.2 $132,540.71 12.5 -0.3 $123,390.09
1975 3.1 9.8 -6.7 $123,660.48 11.3 -8.2 $113,272.10
1976 10.9 9.3 1.6 $125,652.01 10.8 0.1 $113,397.25
1977 13.1 8.3 4.9 $131,807.89 9.8 3.4 $117,251.79
1978 20.9 11.5 9.4 $144,184.09 13.0 7.9 $126,502.46
1979 44.4 15.0 29.4 $186,584.98 16.5 27.9 $161,806.09
1980 14.8 18.3 -3.5 $180,101.15 19.8 -5.0 $153,756.24
1981 -9.9 17.3 -27.1 $131,242.96 18.8 -28.6 $109,738.60
1982 24.5 12.5 12.0 $147,054.51 14.0 10.5 $121,313.32
1983 12.8 11.0 1.8 $149,732.29 12.5 0.3 $121,702.68
1984 3.3 11.3 -7.9 $137,828.57 12.8 -9.4 $110,201.77
1985 20.1 10.0 10.1 $151,692.22 11.5 8.6 $119,633.52
1986 14.2 9.8 4.4 $158,389.78 11.3 2.9 $123,121.11
1987 6.8 9.8 -3.0 $153,703.44 11.3 -4.5 $117,631.47
1988 3.2 12.3 -9.1 $139,735.73 13.8 -10.6 $105,177.30
1989 12.0 13.5 -1.5 $137,625.90 15.0 -3.0 $102,011.60
1990 -0.3 12.8 -13.1 $119,665.72 14.3 -14.6 $87,168.91
1991 11.6 8.0 3.6 $123,930.30 9.5 2.1 $88,967.85
1992 6.4 7.3 -0.9 $122,829.17 8.8 -2.4 $86,842.85
1993 21.6 5.5 16.1 $142,598.47 7.0 14.6 $99,517.52
1994 -1.9 8.0 -9.9 $128,523.93 9.5 -11.4 $88,202.33
1995 14.9 7.5 7.4 $138,010.17 9.0 5.9 $93,389.44
1996 13.1 4.8 8.3 $149,496.91 6.3 6.8 $99,761.50
1997 5.1 6.0 -0.9 $148,151.44 7.5 -2.4 $97,367.23
1998 6.1 6.8 -0.7 $147,145.43 8.3 -2.2 $95,245.55
1999 5.8 6.5 -0.7 $146,154.03 8.0 -2.2 $93,175.15
2000 7.5 7.5 0.0 $146,113.80 9.0 -1.5 $91,751.88
2001 1.1 4.0 -2.9 $141,947.54 5.5 -4.4 $87,759.40
2002 5.7 4.5 1.2 $143,617.99 6.0 -0.3 $87,475.77
2003 9.9 4.5 5.4 $151,375.15 6.0 3.9 $90,888.42
2004 7.7 4.3 3.4 $156,590.63 5.8 1.9 $92,656.56
2005 13.8 5.0 8.8 $170,436.93 6.5 7.3 $99,459.73
2006 11.2 6.0 5.2 $179,282.11 7.5 3.7 $103,129.51
2007 7.2 6.0 1.2 $181,361.55 7.5 -0.3 $102,778.73
2008 -3.0 3.5 -6.5 $169,605.16 5.0 -8.0 $94,574.63
2009 12.5 2.3 10.3 $187,059.37 3.8 8.8 $102,888.77
2010 14.3 3.0 11.3 $208,255.21 4.5 9.8 $113,003.84
AVG 10.6 8.4 2.2 9.9 0.7
It would then appear that anyone using a margin account at 4.25% is a complete sucker, especially when options/futures/derivatives can be leveraged for basically 0-1%.Clive wrote: More likely leveraged funds will be holding a combination of 1x underlying and also be using derivatives. The time value (cost to borrow) for derivatives is typically similar to short term treasury yields. Those trading/borrowing costs would typically be absorbed from the fund value, not from the expense ratio, so the daily price of the fund reflect those costs having been absorbed. Although with higher expense ratio's, perhaps they proportion the costs to a bit of both expenses and from fund value.
Interesting, very very interesting. But based on my backtesting, I have seen that a US PP held by a Canadian can be quite volitile and has had a much lower return over the past 30 years (basically due to the fluctuations in the USD/CAD). I would prefer to use mostly CAD assets, but unfortunately there is not a leveraged CAD LTT. I suppose I could buy the real futures, but I have a lot of homework ahead of me before I dive into that. I know very little about how the options/futures markets work.If a Canadian holds 8.3% in each of US 3x stocks (BGU), 3x LTT (TMF), 3x Gold (UGLD) and 75% in Canadian short term treasury then they're exposed to
25% Stock
25% LTT
25% Gold
25% USD
75% CAD
75% lent (buy STT)
50% borrowed (via ETF's)
For the 75% CAD exposure, that risk is reduced by also holding 25% gold and 25% USD - to a 25% overall type amount.
75% lent and 50% borrowed is a net 25% lending overall amount.
There's also carry-trade positions in that (USD versus CAD interest rate differentials).
There's more asset classes to measure - and perhaps periodically rebalance (add-low/reduce-high).
Whilst that starts of relatively simple, after rebalancing - for instance to perhaps reduce USD, add to CAD so as to realign overall to 25% CAD exposure - you'll end up with a more mixed bag of USD and CAD holdings. So there will be more holdings/more rebalancing /more trading costs. That might however generate more rewards.
That makes sense.Clive wrote:No - because the 'cash' you hold also rises/falls in reflection.Gosso wrote:So we can expect that x2,3 ETF's will see a higher "slippage" when/if interest rates and therefore borrowing costs increase?
$100 total, you invest $50 in 2x, $50 in 'cash'.
2x ETF takes your $50, borrows another $50 at 'cash' rate and invests $100 in the 1x underlying stock.
If the cost of borrowing increases and the fund pays more for the $50 they borrow, you'll also receive more for the $50 in cash that you hold.
Source: https://swww.scotiaitrade.com/html/cust ... tml#bcallsII. Buying Calls as part of an investment plan
A popular use of options known as "the 90/10 strategy" involves placing 10% of your investment funds in long (purchased) calls and the other 90% in a money market instrument (in our examples we use T-bills) held until the option's expiration. This strategy provides both leverage (from the options) and limited risk (from the T-bills), allowing the investor to benefit from a favorable stock price move while limiting the downside risk to the call premium minus any interest earned on the T-bills.
Assume XYZ is trading at $60 per share. To purchase 100 shares of XYZ would require an investment of $6,000, all of which would be exposed to the risk of a price decline. To employ the 90/10 strategy, you would buy a six-month XYZ 60 call. Assuming a premium of 6, the cost of the option would be $600. This purchase leaves you with $5,400 to invest in T-bills for six months. Assuming an interest rate of 10% and that the T-bill is held until maturity, the $5,400 would earn interest of $270 over the six month period. The interest earned would effectively reduce the cost of the option to $330 ($600 premium minus $270 interest).
If the price of XYZ rises by more than $3.30 per share, your long call will realize the dollar appreciation at expiration of a long position in 100 shares of XYZ stock but with less capital invested in the option than would have been invested in the 100 shares of stock. As a result, you will realize a higher return on your capital with the option than with the stock.
If the stock price instead increases by less than $3.30 or falls, your loss will be limited to the price you paid for the option ($600) and this loss will be at least partially offset by the earned interest on your T-bill plus the premium you receive from closing out your position by selling the option, if you choose to do so.
It seems that a Canadian investor could easily compensate for the currency risk with a small amount of money in FX or options on the US or Canadian dollar if you employed this strategy (investing in US based leveraged trading vehicles).Gosso wrote:That makes sense.Clive wrote:No - because the 'cash' you hold also rises/falls in reflection.Gosso wrote:So we can expect that x2,3 ETF's will see a higher "slippage" when/if interest rates and therefore borrowing costs increase?
$100 total, you invest $50 in 2x, $50 in 'cash'.
2x ETF takes your $50, borrows another $50 at 'cash' rate and invests $100 in the 1x underlying stock.
If the cost of borrowing increases and the fund pays more for the $50 they borrow, you'll also receive more for the $50 in cash that you hold.
I came across this in my reading on options, which sounds very similar to what you are suggesting, except with options:
Source: https://swww.scotiaitrade.com/html/cust ... tml#bcallsII. Buying Calls as part of an investment plan
A popular use of options known as "the 90/10 strategy" involves placing 10% of your investment funds in long (purchased) calls and the other 90% in a money market instrument (in our examples we use T-bills) held until the option's expiration. This strategy provides both leverage (from the options) and limited risk (from the T-bills), allowing the investor to benefit from a favorable stock price move while limiting the downside risk to the call premium minus any interest earned on the T-bills.
Assume XYZ is trading at $60 per share. To purchase 100 shares of XYZ would require an investment of $6,000, all of which would be exposed to the risk of a price decline. To employ the 90/10 strategy, you would buy a six-month XYZ 60 call. Assuming a premium of 6, the cost of the option would be $600. This purchase leaves you with $5,400 to invest in T-bills for six months. Assuming an interest rate of 10% and that the T-bill is held until maturity, the $5,400 would earn interest of $270 over the six month period. The interest earned would effectively reduce the cost of the option to $330 ($600 premium minus $270 interest).
If the price of XYZ rises by more than $3.30 per share, your long call will realize the dollar appreciation at expiration of a long position in 100 shares of XYZ stock but with less capital invested in the option than would have been invested in the 100 shares of stock. As a result, you will realize a higher return on your capital with the option than with the stock.
If the stock price instead increases by less than $3.30 or falls, your loss will be limited to the price you paid for the option ($600) and this loss will be at least partially offset by the earned interest on your T-bill plus the premium you receive from closing out your position by selling the option, if you choose to do so.
Although I'm thinking you have more creative methods for utilizing the cash.
Can you think of any potential problems with using options instead of leveraged ETF's. Obviously options use much more leverage and can easily become worthless, but this can be compensated by leveraging only ~10% of the portfolio, rather than 50% as for the x2 ETF's.
Side Bar: Apparently there are no options or leveraged ETF's for Long Term Canadian Bonds. If I ever do this, I'll have to use options on TLT/EDV or leveraged US ETF's.
You are right, but it may not be worth it. iShares Canada will typically hedge their international ETF's against the USD/CAD fluctuations, but the hedging increases the tracking error by about 1%. :o So if iShares cannot figure it out, then I'm probably screwed. Plus if I simply setup the portfolio to embrace the volatility between the CAD/USD then I should be in better shape. I have some ideas on how to do this, likely 50% CAD / 50% USD and Gold.clacy wrote: It seems that a Canadian investor could easily compensate for the currency risk with a small amount of money in FX or options on the US or Canadian dollar if you employed this strategy (investing in US based leveraged trading vehicles).
Cool stuff. From your plots, it looks like if the 1x curve has changed by a factor of (1+x) over a period of time (where x is greater than or equal to -1.0), the 2x curve has changed by a factor (1+x)2, the 3x curve has changed by (1+x)3, and so on.Gosso wrote: I had a tough time wrapping my brain around how the 2x DAILY movement on the leveraged ETF's worked, so I used the random number generator to create a pseudo-leveraged index. I had previously thought that if the index dropped 50% over a period of time then the x2 ETF would be zero, but this shows that assumption was incorrect.
Regarding volatility drag, it seems the leveraged ETF will over come this once the underlying index makes a decent move higher, as can be seen in the bottom right chart. Although I haven't factored in the cost to borrow or the higher MER.Tortoise wrote: [EDIT: The approximation above applies mainly to Gosso's top two plots, where the price movements all tend to be in the same direction. In the bottom two plots, the up-and-down movements create volatility drag, which invalidates the approximation.]
So what you're telling me is that 'Free Lunches' do exist! "Please sir I want some more", "No problem, here you go."Clive wrote: After each decline in the 1x, a 2x holds less leverage the next day. After each rise in the 1x, the 2x holds more leverage the next day. That puts a brake on declines and amplifies upsides, that your charts show.
In the top left chart, after the 1x had declined around -50%, the 2x was down around -75% (approximating by eye). In the top right chart, after the 1x had risen +50%, the 2x was up around 125%.
Holding half in the 2x as a synthetic 1x might see (respectively) +62.5% versus +50% on the upsides and -37.5% versus -50% on the downsides. i.e. half in the 2x is potentially better than holding the 1x.
Since the individual components of the PP are so volatile, this is why my backtested hypothetical 2x PP did so well. This topic is fascinating since only the component assets in the pp would seem to allow this strategy to work. Any other 2x strategy would necessarily be using assets that are more correlated leading to highly volatile yearly returns.Clive wrote: Nice charts Gosso
After each decline in the 1x, a 2x holds less leverage the next day. After each rise in the 1x, the 2x holds more leverage the next day. That puts a brake on declines and amplifies upsides, that your charts show.
In the top left chart, after the 1x had declined around -50%, the 2x was down around -75% (approximating by eye). In the top right chart, after the 1x had risen +50%, the 2x was up around 125%.
Holding half in the 2x as a synthetic 1x might see (respectively) +62.5% versus +50% on the upsides and -37.5% versus -50% on the downsides. i.e. half in the 2x is potentially better than holding the 1x.