Apple-- Planned obsolescence?
Posted: Sat Nov 23, 2019 10:23 pm
Can anyone explain to me the rationale for Apple's operating system for mobile devices?
For decades I had never owned anything Apple in the belief that their computers were way overpriced compared to Windows computers, and that if someone was going to create software they'd first create it for Windows programs and then, maybe, create the same for Apple computers. To this date is there a working version of QuickBooks or Quicken for Apple computers?
However, when I wanted to buy my first tablet in 2012 I decided I wanted to get an iPad since it seemed the reverse with Apple tablets compared to their competitors. Since they so dominated the market developers would first develop it for Apple and, then, maybe for other brands.
If I have misstated anything so far I more than welcome any corrections to my beliefs / assumptions.
I still have never owned an Apple computer but almost everything else Apple and really like each of them. I have multiples of each of the following: iPhones, iTouches, iPods, iPads.
Getting to my question.
I own Windows computers that have Windows 10, Windows 7, and Windows XP. For just about any software I want, I can almost always get that software in any of those operating system versions. If they were once created, then they are always available.
I was shocked to see that this is not the case for all those Apple devices I own.
There once were apps available that worked with the latest operating system possible on that device. But once a new operating system comes out then all apps worked with prior system are no longer to be found? The only way I can get at an app for a prior operating system is to have it already installed on one of my devices and then I can also download it to one of my other devices. However, if it an app I've never installed then it seems I'm not going to be able to obtain it to install on my devices that has topped out at an older operating system?
Looking for confirmation of what I have found to be the case so far. And, what is Apple's rationale for doing this? They have such an extreme demand for their products that they can get away with doing this? The most advanced case of planned obsolescence that I have ever personally encountered?
I assume that if I have a reading app installed on the devices I will always be able to read the current ebooks that I own plus always be able to send and receive email?
Vinny
I
For decades I had never owned anything Apple in the belief that their computers were way overpriced compared to Windows computers, and that if someone was going to create software they'd first create it for Windows programs and then, maybe, create the same for Apple computers. To this date is there a working version of QuickBooks or Quicken for Apple computers?
However, when I wanted to buy my first tablet in 2012 I decided I wanted to get an iPad since it seemed the reverse with Apple tablets compared to their competitors. Since they so dominated the market developers would first develop it for Apple and, then, maybe for other brands.
If I have misstated anything so far I more than welcome any corrections to my beliefs / assumptions.
I still have never owned an Apple computer but almost everything else Apple and really like each of them. I have multiples of each of the following: iPhones, iTouches, iPods, iPads.
Getting to my question.
I own Windows computers that have Windows 10, Windows 7, and Windows XP. For just about any software I want, I can almost always get that software in any of those operating system versions. If they were once created, then they are always available.
I was shocked to see that this is not the case for all those Apple devices I own.
There once were apps available that worked with the latest operating system possible on that device. But once a new operating system comes out then all apps worked with prior system are no longer to be found? The only way I can get at an app for a prior operating system is to have it already installed on one of my devices and then I can also download it to one of my other devices. However, if it an app I've never installed then it seems I'm not going to be able to obtain it to install on my devices that has topped out at an older operating system?
Looking for confirmation of what I have found to be the case so far. And, what is Apple's rationale for doing this? They have such an extreme demand for their products that they can get away with doing this? The most advanced case of planned obsolescence that I have ever personally encountered?
I assume that if I have a reading app installed on the devices I will always be able to read the current ebooks that I own plus always be able to send and receive email?
Vinny
I