Re: Maximum Bond Upside
Posted: Thu Jun 16, 2016 2:52 am

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https://www.gyroscopicinvesting.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=6675
That's absolutely what I'm going to do too, difficult or not! Remember that discussion about what we'll do about long bonds when the yield goes down to 1 or 1.5%? Not there yet but somehow I think we might be breaking 2% sometime soon.barrett wrote:FWIW I followed your recent suggestion when my wife made her Roth contribution for 2015... just closed my eyes and bought some TLT, some IAU and some S&P 500 shares. Don't even know the purchase prices but those TLT shares have gone up.sophie wrote: I must say it's going to be REALLY difficult to buy long bonds when I go to invest next month's PP contribution.
Not only do I remember it but I think it's going to be a big topic on here going forward. Just got a report a couple days ago from one of the Europeans who uses German Bunds. They are the best performing asset in the European PP so far this year (with gold a close second).sophie wrote:That's absolutely what I'm going to do too, difficult or not! Remember that discussion about what we'll do about long bonds when the yield goes down to 1 or 1.5%? Not there yet but somehow I think we might be breaking 2% sometime soon.barrett wrote:FWIW I followed your recent suggestion when my wife made her Roth contribution for 2015... just closed my eyes and bought some TLT, some IAU and some S&P 500 shares. Don't even know the purchase prices but those TLT shares have gone up.sophie wrote: I must say it's going to be REALLY difficult to buy long bonds when I go to invest next month's PP contribution.
Oooo! That's a tasty one!. Offsetting losses for everyone when it comes time to file taxes?Kbg wrote: Random question I just thought of...in the US what would be the tax treatment of negative interest treasurys?
I don't think anyone actually believes they will ride out the duration. They're just parked until something better comes along. But man, 50 years at that rate has a duration of about 49.5 years. That's almost half your capital wiped out on a 1% move in yields! That's just insane.Lang wrote:40 and 50 year bond yields of Switzerland are now both at 0.04%. Ignoring possible changes in price, this means that the cumulative yield of the 50 year bond is just about 2%. Two percent for 50 years of sitting on a bond.
I get about 37.5 years, but who's quibbling? At such low a YTM you definitely don't see much of a convexity effect. And 0% YTM breaks my convexity calculator.Lang wrote:Actually, Switzerland's 50 year bond has a 2% annual coupon rate - the bond was issued two years ago, before the NIRP craze. So its duration is "just" 36.5 years.
Anyway, the yield on that bond just went down to zero percent. That's it, guys. We're finished.
Yup, at least as far as I can calculate it. You're just paying interest instead of earning it, but it's still a loss that lengthens the effective duration. Technically, it would be a loss if held to maturity because you don't have enough time to recoup the negative yields. Sort of like bitcoin mining through difficulty increases.buddtholomew wrote:Does % decline and duration work in the same fashion when yields are negative (ignoring duration increases)?
In other words, does a -1% decline earn the investor approximately 20% in returns if the 20-year treasury was purchased at a yield of 0%?
Thanks MG. I'm basically deer in the headlights for now and not adjusting any fixed income duration by selling LTT's.MachineGhost wrote:Yup, at least as far as I can calculate it. You're just paying interest instead of earning it, but it's still a loss that lengthens the effective duration. Technically, it would be a loss if held to maturity because you don't have enough time to recoup the negative yields. Sort of like bitcoin mining through difficulty increases.buddtholomew wrote:Does % decline and duration work in the same fashion when yields are negative (ignoring duration increases)?
In other words, does a -1% decline earn the investor approximately 20% in returns if the 20-year treasury was purchased at a yield of 0%?
So what I did was record the duration right before Black Monday and adjust it upwards so that the gain on the bonds before they topped out two weeks later covered exactly that one day -20.5% loss. And that's about 12.5 years of duration. So taking VUSTX for example, you would only allocate 18.50% to it instead of 25% to get that duration. Unless anyone has some other brilliant ideas, this is what I'm capping it at.
OTOH, as I mentioned elsewhere, you could use 6.5 years duration at the 1981 peak, allocating 9.6% to bonds. That's the absolute worst case scenario... until it's surpassed. But I don't think that has enough juice to protect equity much. It would have made only about 10% for that 1.45% yield decline after Black Monday.
I suspect it is wrong to look at the overall fixed income duration of the PP by including T-Bills. A Frankenstein intermediate bond doesn't have the flexibility to move against equity declines as a right barbell does. But maybe it is all academic and I'm willing to be persuaded otherwise.
I did some backtesting and I can't see any relation between stock duration and bond duration. But going too low in bond duration will certainly offset the ability to recoup stock losses. It's also complicated by the fact there's no such thing as a constant duration bond and I'm not sure if bond funds keep it fixed (doubt it).buddtholomew wrote:Thanks MG. I'm basically deer in the headlights for now and not adjusting any fixed income duration by selling LTT's.
Still maintaining 5.6 years and obviously including cash in the calculation.
https://next.ft.com/content/1205b735-e7 ... e96dec4fe3FT wrote:
The topsy-turve world of government bond markets has just hit a new milestone.
As of today, Switzerland’s entire stock of government debt is now trading at negative yields – with the last to go a bond that does not mature for almost 50 years.
Yields on the Swiss 2064 paper dropped below zero for the first time on Friday, meaning investors are willing to pay more to hold the bond than they will get back in interest and repayment of principal, writes Elaine Moore.
Around the world, government bond yields have fallen to new lows this week as investors anticipate years of ultra-low interest rates.
The yield on benchmark, 10-year UK gilts has reached a fresh low of 0.78 per cent following the UK’s vote to withdraw from the EU and Bank of England governor Mark Carney’s announcement on Thursday that monetary easing was possible in the summer. Swiss 10-year bonds are trading at minus 0.66 per cent.
I combine TLT (currently 17 years duration) with highest term CD to create my +/- 5.6 year duration. TLT and SPY are both 25% each so I maintain the PP balance. Love the extra cash even if it does not provide optimal results. I don't underestimate ability to sleep well.MachineGhost wrote:I did some backtesting and I can't see any relation between stock duration and bond duration. But going too low in bond duration will certainly offset the ability to recoup stock losses. It's also complicated by the fact there's no such thing as a constant duration bond and I'm not sure if bond funds keep it fixed (doubt it).buddtholomew wrote:Thanks MG. I'm basically deer in the headlights for now and not adjusting any fixed income duration by selling LTT's.
Still maintaining 5.6 years and obviously including cash in the calculation.
A 30 year + 1 year = 11.5 year overall duration which is rather high.
A 20 year + 1 year = 8.79 year overall duration which is rather moderate.
A 10 year + 1 year = 5.13 year overall duration which is rather low.
I still don't have an answer but the lower the duration the worse it is for offsetting equity declines. 2008 needed a lot of help and 10 year + 1 year just didn't hack it.
So I don't think there's any duration magic to be had here. Disgusted!
It's a good plan I think. Only problem is that EDV has lousy liquidity and you'll probably pay a solid 0.1-0.2% more than they are worth due to the bid/ask spread.buddtholomew wrote:MachineGhost wrote:buddtholomew wrote:One thing I was thinking of doing is replacing a portion of TLT for EDV and placing the difference in cash.
That way I have less absolute $ in LTT's but still have the duration to hedge losses in equities.
That's unfortunate.iwealth wrote:It's a good plan I think. Only problem is that EDV has lousy liquidity and you'll probably pay a solid 0.1-0.2% more than they are worth due to the bid/ask spread.buddtholomew wrote:MachineGhost wrote: