rickb wrote:
Kshartle wrote:
Mountaineer wrote:
"We shouldn't do what is gobbledygook". I realize we do not have a commonly held definition of gobbledygook, but that is not a problem. You will just have to trust me on this.
It's a true statement of fact. Thus,
we should not do what is gobbledygook, we should not act in a manner of behavior that is not in accordance with reality blah blah. If you do not like the word gobbledygook, substitute one of your choosing since no one will have the same definition that you do but we will move the process forward.
Make sense?
... Mountaineer
No M I don't understand what you're trying to say.
Do you disagree with anything I said? Do you think I am incorrect? If so, please show me where and demonstrate why I'm incorrect.
I haven't been paying much attention to this thread lately, but I think Mountaineer's point has to do with the definition of "wrong".
Where, exactly, is this defined?
If it's not exactly defined, then the statement "We shouldn't do what is wrong" is not defined either, so the "fact" that its negation is "false" doesn't mean anything. Neither the statement, or its negation, are defined which means both are neither true or false.
I believe this a M's point.
OK, found it.
The definition of “wrong”? is: "Not in conformity with fact or truth; incorrect or erroneous." (from
http://gyroscopicinvesting.com/forum/ot ... ality/555/)
So, what the statement you're "proving" is correct (by showing its negation is false) is "we should not do what is not in conformity with fact or truth; incorrect or erroneous".
Isn't anything I do "in conformity with fact or truth"? I pretty much can't do an imaginary thing, right? So, given the definitions here I think anything I do must not be "wrong" (according to your definition of "wrong"). I.e. as defined, "wrong" has nothing whatsoever to do with a moralistic "right" or "wrong", but only with an objective "true" or "false". If I've actually done it, then it would be wrong (as in "incorrect") to say I haven't done it.
The issue here is you've defined "wrong" (and, presumably "right") not with their moralistic definitions but with their objective true/false definitions. Now, you're trying to use them in a statement with their moralistic definition (which is not how they're defined, here - right?).
A long time ago, I posted a proof in this thread that 1=2 (
http://gyroscopicinvesting.com/forum/ot ... /#msg92800). This "proof" relies on a very subtle error in definition. You are doing essentially the same thing. Taking words you define to be one thing, and using them to "prove" statements using completely different definitions.
It is morally wrong to use the word wrong in a statement suggesting wrong has a moralistic meaning in a context in which wrong is defined to be false.